<div dir="ltr"><div>Although this certainly is a complex issue, shouldn't diplomatic immunity be extended to e-documents in similar contexts? Jovan Kurbalija explains it better than I can in the blog post 'Do e-mail and e-documents have diplomatic protection?'<br>
<a href="http://www.diplomacy.edu/blog/do-e-mail-and-e-documents-have-diplomatic-protection">http://www.diplomacy.edu/blog/do-e-mail-and-e-documents-have-diplomatic-protection</a><br><br></div>Excerpt:<br><br><p style="margin-top:0px;color:rgb(85,85,85);font-family:arial,helvetica,clean,sans-serif;font-size:14px;font-style:normal;font-variant:normal;font-weight:normal;letter-spacing:normal;line-height:18.9844px;text-align:start;text-indent:0px;text-transform:none;white-space:normal;word-spacing:0px;background-color:rgb(255,255,255)">
The short answer is YES! A bit longer answer could be prompted by questions… why, over the last few days, have we not heard news about ambassadors presenting demarches in Washington, with reasonable doubts whether their e-mails have been intercepted? Or… the news that some national legal adviser, with the hope to have his/her name written in legal history, is preparing a court case against the USA on the grounds of unauthorised access to diplomatic documents stored on Google Drive?</p>
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In these examples I have mentioned the USA because of the recent PRISM outrage and the concentration of the Internet industry in the USA. But, in principle, any country could be responsible for (not) observing diplomatic e-immunities.</p>
<p style="margin-top:0px;color:rgb(85,85,85);font-family:arial,helvetica,clean,sans-serif;font-size:14px;font-style:normal;font-variant:normal;font-weight:normal;letter-spacing:normal;line-height:18.9844px;text-align:start;text-indent:0px;text-transform:none;white-space:normal;word-spacing:0px;background-color:rgb(255,255,255)">
One of the early incidents involving e-immunities dates back to 2002, when a local Turkish newspaper intercepted and published an e-mail sent by the European Union (EU) delegation in Turkey. The EU demanded...</p><br></div>
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<br><br><div class="gmail_quote">On 24 June 2013 09:20, Suresh Ramasubramanian <span dir="ltr"><<a href="mailto:suresh@hserus.net" target="_blank">suresh@hserus.net</a>></span> wrote:<br><blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin:0 0 0 .8ex;border-left:1px #ccc solid;padding-left:1ex">
Any such exemption would be explicitly granted and documented. To my<br>
knowledge such an exemption doesn't seem to exist though. I would love to<br>
be proved wrong.<br>
<br>
Marie GEORGES [24/06/13 16:16 +0200]:<br>
<blockquote class="gmail_quote" style="margin:0 0 0 .8ex;border-left:1px #ccc solid;padding-left:1ex">
OF course and there are many other long standing principles relating to<br>
applicable law and I showed you one case in which US accepted not to apply<br>
the "sovereignty" principle to data on its territory because the activity<br>
at stake, except "processing of related data", had nothing to do with US<br>
<br>
Other example, even if the Data Protection law is a "public order" law in<br>
EU, EU decided not to apply the DP directive of 1995 to data only "in<br>
transit" ....<br>
</blockquote>
<br>
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